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Cherubim or Cherubims?
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Q:
Why does the KJV add an "s" to cherubim and seraphim,
if
the two words are plural already?
A:
According to the Oxford English Dictionary, cherub is a word that
originated in the Hebrew, from which it came to Greek, then to
Latin, to French, and finally from the French into English. In
the French, the singular was cherubin and the plural was cherubins.
In Wycliffe's 14th century translation of the Bible into English, cherubin was
replaced with cherub, but cherubins was retained
as the plural form of the word. In the 16th century, acquaintance
with the Hebrew led to the plural form of cherubins being
replaced by cherubims. The later form is found only once
in Coverdale's Bible but is consistently used in the Bishops Bible
and the King James Bible of 1611. From around the beginning of
the 17th century, scholars began to prefer the plural cherubim to cherubims (for
example, John Milton used cherubim). Since that time,
the plural form of cherubs has been replacing cherubim in
many instances; cherubs being used as the individual ordinary
plural and cherubim being used as the collective plural. In
short, the form cherubims is used in the King James Bible
because of two reasons: 1) it was the historically correct form
of the word in 1611; and, 2) it was based on a foreign form of
the plural word, namely the cherubins of the French. I
could not find as much information about the seraphims. It seems
that seraphims was used because it's relationship
to cherubims. Some of the historical quotations used
the words together. It wold seem strange to have cherubims and seraphim.
Therefore the "s" was added to make it seraphims.
English is a language that has many historical markers. Your question
concerns a couple of them.
I hope this helps,
Pastor
David Reagan
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