In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
I have a question about the rapture. I was ask by someone that if the rapture will take place and their are unsaved mothers who are pregnant and we believe that a child is saved if he does not reach yet the age of accountability. My question is "Is the child in the womb will be raptured?"
In Acts 1:13, Judas is referred to as the brother of James in the KJV, yet in all of the newer versions, he is called the son of James. Do you know why all of the newer versions change this?
Do fathers have the ultimate decision in their daughters marriage?
Can the blood of Jesus be used to rebuke the Devil?
