Did John the Baptist baptize Gentiles or only Jews?
My question is, why do people call the Bible the Word of God when it is clearly a name given to Jesus? If you read the Bible believing that the Bible is the Word of God it gives you a very different message from reading it with the understanding that Jesus being the Word of God.
There are two Antioch's in the book of Acts. What are the differences between them?
Except for the reference in Matthew 3:11, the term "threshingfloor" is found only in the Old Testament. Its use there indicates there is a particular significance in a "threshingfloor". 2 Samuel 24 tells of King David buying a threshingfloor, to build an altar on it. Why a "threshingfloor" and not a field or some other structure? I believe God has a purpose in every word in His Bible. What's the significance in this usage?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
