Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
Some people I know lost their eldest son at the age of seven through a farm accident, they believe he came to salvation many years ago but has backslid over the years. I struggle with trying to come at this tragedy from a biblical perspective. Other well meaning folks have said to them that it could be God's way of bringing them back (and to) fellowship with Him. They cannot accept this and is in fact driving them away. I guess it comes down to the oldest question of them all "why did God allow this to happen?" As a family (2 other younger children ) they are really suffering.
How can a Christian life touch others?
Why did Jesus tell Mary not to touch him since he had not ascended to his Father? When did he ascend? Did not he invite Thomas to thrust his hand in his side? I guess I'm looking for the chronological order. Also when did Jesus present the blood to the father? Was it the literal blood that came from his body on the cross?
In Isaiah 45:7 the scripture reads as follows: "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things." Could you explain this scripture for me?
