Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
The pain and agony the two sisters went through (Mary and Martha) in the death of Lazarus, does it mean sometimes God is happy to see us in pain just for His name to be glorified? I want more exposure on how to handle adversities of such nature.
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
I have a question about John 11:1-45 especially verses 6-17. If Jesus stayed 2 more days how could Lazarus have been dead 4 days? Was he already dead when the message came to Jesus?
