Did John the Baptist baptize Gentiles or only Jews?
I recognize the Bible states that God "predestines" us (Christians) for a future with Christ in Heaven [Ephesians 1:4-6, Romans 8:29-30, Romans 11: 5-6] and that he does NOT predestine others to Hell (1 Timothy 2:4, 2 Peter 3:9]; however, does this mean that only a few of the Christians on Earth were predestined by God and the rest "happened" to come to Christ by the work of these Christians and the Holy Spirit? Or were ALL the people who God knew would become Christian through His omniscience thus "predestined" by Christ?
When the Great Tribulation comes, how can people be saved? Is it still by faith or plain works?
Will God, through the Holy Spirit, finally give up on calling someone for salvation, if the person continues to reject the call?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
