Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
Do all men have a chance to hear the Gospel before they die? I realize that God "reveals Himself through His creation," thus, does one merely have to honor His handiwork if they otherwise do not hear the message of Christ? This includes Native Americans before the colonization of North America.
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
Last Sunday my pastor started teaching the book of Luke. He taught that Luke was a Gentile. I have a hard time believing this. Was Luke a Gentile?
