Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is Matthew 16:28 talking about? Does it contradict itself?
In Ezekiel, chapters 40-47, is this a future setup of what has to happen with Israel as nation in the future? What is the period?
What is the "outer darkness"?
Would you please explain the significance of Christ's words to his mother in John 2:1-5.
