From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Where in the Bible does it state that the ceremonial law was nailed to the cross?
In the question and answer section of your website on doubting your salvation, the writer quotes Galatians 2:16 and indicates "the faith OF Christ" refers not to faith IN Christ, but Christ's actual faith. That verse is referred to also in the same way in the section on "how to lose your salvation." JF&B, Matthew Henry, Luther, and Wiersbe all seem to indicate that this verse refers to faith IN Christ. Can you tell me of any other sources that support your interpretation?
I recently read an interpretation of Ephesians 2:8-9 that said, "faith there is not the gift - salvation (the subject of the entire passage) is the gift of God. Faith is a feminine noun, while the demonstrative pronoun that ("it is" is not in the Greek) is neuter and could not refer to faith. The Greek will not permit "faith" to be the gift." How do you interpret this passage?
Can you tell me what is meant by 1 John 5:6 "water and blood"? What is water? What does "He came by water and blood" mean?
