I've been having a heated discussion with a fellow church member about the differences between James and Paul. How James was under a different dispensation than Paul, my friend can't buy that. I was wondering what scriptures I could show him that would back up my argument? I tried to explain how James was a legalist, that his teaching was faith plus works for salvation, and Paul's teaching is Faith. Can you help?
Do you know of any passages in the bible which state that God demands righteousness from all people or does the Bible make a distinction between righteousness required by the world at large and that required by God's children?
I recently read an interpretation of Ephesians 2:8-9 that said, "faith there is not the gift - salvation (the subject of the entire passage) is the gift of God. Faith is a feminine noun, while the demonstrative pronoun that ("it is" is not in the Greek) is neuter and could not refer to faith. The Greek will not permit "faith" to be the gift." How do you interpret this passage?
Why do Christians not keep the Jewish laws? There are people in our community who believe that salvation is of grace through Christ's blood, but also believe Christ meant us to keep the law.
I have a question regarding this and need some clarifications. I use the Scofield KJV (copyright 1967) and it has a correction to the original 1611 KJV. My Scofield says (the phrase is in italics in my Bible) "The KJV omits this italicized clause, which appears in all important Greek mss." Do you consider this to be an error in the 1611 edition or do you consider Scofield's position to be in error?
