From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Concerning the timeline of the Lord's appearances after His resurrections given in the four gospels, Matthew says that Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to the tomb as it began to dawn (Luke also lists Joanna). John only mentions Mary Magdalene. Clearly there were other women there and the Holy Spirit makes that clear in the other passages. In trying to understand the sequence of events by studying each of the gospels, there appears to be a couple of different possible timelines. What are your thoughts?
Can you help me? I am looking for information relating to the Burnt offerings, described in Leviticus. I had read that when they were performed, they didn't remove all the sin, but allowed the individual to at least have communion with God. I read this in a commentary section in the Spirit Filled Life Bible,but cannot find it in the scripture that I read.
I've been having a heated discussion with a fellow church member about the differences between James and Paul. How James was under a different dispensation than Paul, my friend can't buy that. I was wondering what scriptures I could show him that would back up my argument? I tried to explain how James was a legalist, that his teaching was faith plus works for salvation, and Paul's teaching is Faith. Can you help?
In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
