Describe how people were saved in the Old Testament after the law was given?
I have heard that Matthew 25:32-46 shows that those saved in the tribulation are saved as a result of how they treat the Jewish people at that time, by works. Is the giving of food, water etc...the reason one gets the inheritance or is the passage speaking of what saved people do being heirs?
1 Samuel 15:22 - What kind of sacrifice pleases God? What does He reject?
I have just read your article on the Sabbath. I am interested to know what you think of Isaiah 56. Is it not new covenant
(everlasting name)? This passage is also referring to the foreigner and the eunuch (gentile perhaps). Love to hear your view!
(everlasting name)? This passage is also referring to the foreigner and the eunuch (gentile perhaps). Love to hear your view!
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
