How can anyone be saved before the saving work of our LORD JESUS CHRIST? If even one person could be saved without his blood, then does that mean that the FATHER is evil, putting his son to useless suffering, for if HE can save one can HE not save them all the same way? The Bible says that if righteousness could be given by the law, then it would have been given, but it is not possible.
1 Samuel 15:22 - What kind of sacrifice pleases God? What does He reject?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Concerning the timeline of the Lord's appearances after His resurrections given in the four gospels, Matthew says that Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to the tomb as it began to dawn (Luke also lists Joanna). John only mentions Mary Magdalene. Clearly there were other women there and the Holy Spirit makes that clear in the other passages. In trying to understand the sequence of events by studying each of the gospels, there appears to be a couple of different possible timelines. What are your thoughts?
Romans 1:28 says, "And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;" My conclusion has been that God gave them over to a reprobate mind for the destruction of the flesh. What is your thought here?
