What is the difference between sin and iniquity?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Romans 1:28 says, "And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;" My conclusion has been that God gave them over to a reprobate mind for the destruction of the flesh. What is your thought here?
Why are the Angels described as being Michael's angels and not God's angels or Christ's angels? Is it possible that Michael could be part of the God head? Could Michael be Jesus Christ in 1 Thessalonions 4:16 of the Bible and John 5:25,28?
I believe in eternal security. However, a co-worker recently presented me with the following scriptures and asked me to explain eternal security with these in mind. Hebrews 6:4-12 and 10:26; 2 Peter 2:20-22 and 3:14-17 What is your viewpoint?
