My understanding of the day of the Lord as referred to in the Bible with the end times starts after the rapture. These verses suggest that the Day of the Lord starts with different periods in respect to the rapture. Joel 3:31, 1 Thessalonians 5:1-5 and Isaiah 13:9. Can you please explain these verses to me as to when exactly the day of the Lord begins?
Is celebrating birthdays biblically wrong?
Will we know if the antichrist is here, the man of sin, the son of perdition? Also will we go thru any part of the 70th week?
Please explain Isaiah chapter twenty-four.
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
