What does Acts 2:38 mean?
The following is a question I read in "Messianic Perspectives" (previously called the Christian Jew prior to becoming politically correct) Newsletter. "The King James Version of the Bible says that the love of money is the root of all evil (1 Timothy 6:10), but other Bible versions say that the love of money is the root of all kinds of evil. I think the second translation (non-KJV) is more accurate because money seems to have nothing to do with sins like lust or jealousy. What do you think?"
My question is about paraphrase bibles. My Pastor likes to use one when he preaches. I work under this man in the ministry. My concern is if we teach or preach the word of God from a paraphrase bible, how will sinners know the truth of the individual words?
Please don't be alarmed by my question. I am doing some research, and some questions are coming to light. Here are a few:
I believe the Bible teaches we are to abstain from wine. However, I have been challenged with Deuteronomy 14:26. This passage deals with those whose journeys are far from the temple. Therefore, they are to take money and purchase what the soul "lusteth" after (?) which includes wine. What is going on? I know other clear statements in the Bible cannot be set aside to "make way" for the idea there are instances people can drink. However, I don't have much of an answer.
