The following is a question I read in "Messianic Perspectives" (previously called the Christian Jew prior to becoming politically correct) Newsletter. "The King James Version of the Bible says that the love of money is the root of all evil (1 Timothy 6:10), but other Bible versions say that the love of money is the root of all kinds of evil. I think the second translation (non-KJV) is more accurate because money seems to have nothing to do with sins like lust or jealousy. What do you think?"
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Is it Biblical to have a woman deacon?
Can you show me the biblical position on the local church supporting a widow (indeed)? How the widow indeed definition works and where the example is given of the deacons being charged with assisting the bishop in the administration and dispersement of needed funds to the widows and any other needy believers that may be listed?
The Bible states that a Deacon shall be the husband of one wife. We have a situation of a man, having married a divorced woman, whom our pastor wants to have him be made a deacon. This is his first marriage, her second.
