Can a preacher direct non-believers to pray a prayer or follow his prayer of repentance and this lead to their salvation?
Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
The term, elder, has a wider range than the term, bishop. Elder may refer to Old or New Testament offices. It may also refer to men of age, experience, and/or wisdom. Bishop refers to a specific New Testament office.
Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
How and why should a Christian be submissive to a corrupted government or selfish employer?
