Can a preacher direct non-believers to pray a prayer or follow his prayer of repentance and this lead to their salvation?
What is your opinion on the confession mentioned in Romans 10:8-10? I have heard many preachers say that a person is not saved until he or she makes a public confession of salvation based on this scripture.
I have a website for ladies, and lately we women have been studying Titus 2:3-5. This week, we are looking at the phrase "keepers at home" in particular. My very old copy of Strong's concordance defines the word "keepers" as "stayers at home; ie. domestically inclined." However, newer Bible dictionaries online define it as "workers" or "taking care of domestic affairs." I found it strange that this is the only usage of this Greek word in the Bible, at least as far as I can tell. It seems fishy that older dictionaries defined this word as "staying" at home, where more recent dictionaries seem to broaden the meaning. I wish I knew Greek myself so that I didn't have to rely on others' definitions. But in my opinion, it seems that if God was careful enough to use a highly-specific word here (so specific that it's not used any where else in the Bible), why are modern definitions so broad?
The term, elder, has a wider range than the term, bishop. Elder may refer to Old or New Testament offices. It may also refer to men of age, experience, and/or wisdom. Bishop refers to a specific New Testament office.
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
