I recently heard a preacher (who believed in a post-trib rapture) say that since 1 Corinthians 15:52 says we are raptured at the "last trump, for the trumpet shall sound" and that the last trump doesn't sound until Revelation 11:15 and that there cannot be 2 last trumpets that the rapture must occur at the end of the great tribulation. I have tried to study this out for myself but I know I'm missing something and I would appreciate any insight you can give me on this.
Please explain what Jesus meant in John 14:19 when He said the world will see Him no more, but the eleven disciples would see Him again. I used to be a Jehovah Witness, but am not any more. Because of their teachings, this verse is confusing to me.
I've been having a heated discussion with a fellow church member about the differences between James and Paul. How James was under a different dispensation than Paul, my friend can't buy that. I was wondering what scriptures I could show him that would back up my argument? I tried to explain how James was a legalist, that his teaching was faith plus works for salvation, and Paul's teaching is Faith. Can you help?
In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
Do you know of any passages in the bible which state that God demands righteousness from all people or does the Bible make a distinction between righteousness required by the world at large and that required by God's children?
