Explain "For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh."
My question deals with remarriage. I have been married four times. It is my understanding that while I was married to the other three husbands, I was in a state of adultery as my first husband was still living and we had divorced with no scriptural basis. Just being young and stupid mainly. My first husband died a few years ago and at his death I was not married. What I can't seem to get an answer on is this... When the first husband dies, it is like "batter up" and the next husband steps to the plate? Or were the subsequent marriages not even valid in God's eyes because I was still bound to my first husband all along? Would I be free to remarry now?
Please advise the best scriptural defense against the teaching of polygamy as being sound doctrine?
I recognize the Bible states that God "predestines" us (Christians) for a future with Christ in Heaven [Ephesians 1:4-6, Romans 8:29-30, Romans 11: 5-6] and that he does NOT predestine others to Hell (1 Timothy 2:4, 2 Peter 3:9]; however, does this mean that only a few of the Christians on Earth were predestined by God and the rest "happened" to come to Christ by the work of these Christians and the Holy Spirit? Or were ALL the people who God knew would become Christian through His omniscience thus "predestined" by Christ?
How do you define sin nature? I believe in the concept of original sin inherited from Adam, but recently I was told that sin is actually in our blood. I have believed that sin is in our nature, but I'd never thought of it as actually being in our blood.
