My question deals with remarriage. I have been married four times. It is my understanding that while I was married to the other three husbands, I was in a state of adultery as my first husband was still living and we had divorced with no scriptural basis. Just being young and stupid mainly. My first husband died a few years ago and at his death I was not married. What I can't seem to get an answer on is this... When the first husband dies, it is like "batter up" and the next husband steps to the plate? Or were the subsequent marriages not even valid in God's eyes because I was still bound to my first husband all along? Would I be free to remarry now?
Please advise the best scriptural defense against the teaching of polygamy as being sound doctrine?
Daniel 10:13-23 mentions the princes (guardian angels) of Persia and Greece; Who is none: are they other princes/angels of nations, do these type angels rule the nations in our times yet and if yes how can we experience them?
Recently, I have been discussing man being made in the image of God. Some say that God's essence is spirit and, therefore, that image is mind, will, and emotions (or similar variations) and cannot include anything physical like a body.Some put forth that the image is spirit, soul, and body. But even most of those admit that the body is looking forward to Jesus as God in the flesh. My question for you is, why couldn't the Word have had a spiritual/physical body before the incarnation and, thus, man being made in God's image would be body, soul, and spirit?
I have a question about the rapture. I was ask by someone that if the rapture will take place and their are unsaved mothers who are pregnant and we believe that a child is saved if he does not reach yet the age of accountability. My question is "Is the child in the womb will be raptured?"
