My question deals with remarriage. I have been married four times. It is my understanding that while I was married to the other three husbands, I was in a state of adultery as my first husband was still living and we had divorced with no scriptural basis. Just being young and stupid mainly. My first husband died a few years ago and at his death I was not married. What I can't seem to get an answer on is this... When the first husband dies, it is like "batter up" and the next husband steps to the plate? Or were the subsequent marriages not even valid in God's eyes because I was still bound to my first husband all along? Would I be free to remarry now?
Please advise the best scriptural defense against the teaching of polygamy as being sound doctrine?
My question is, why do people call the Bible the Word of God when it is clearly a name given to Jesus? If you read the Bible believing that the Bible is the Word of God it gives you a very different message from reading it with the understanding that Jesus being the Word of God.
What does supplication mean?
Could you shed some light on who Melchisedec was?
