Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
Some people I know lost their eldest son at the age of seven through a farm accident, they believe he came to salvation many years ago but has backslid over the years. I struggle with trying to come at this tragedy from a biblical perspective. Other well meaning folks have said to them that it could be God's way of bringing them back (and to) fellowship with Him. They cannot accept this and is in fact driving them away. I guess it comes down to the oldest question of them all "why did God allow this to happen?" As a family (2 other younger children ) they are really suffering.
When Jesus is addressing the seven churches in Revelations, he repeats the statement, "to him that overcomes." In Revelation 3:21 Jesus even says, "... to him that overcomes, even as I also overcame..." My question is; If a person is saved by grace through faith, and the debt is paid in full by the blood of Christ, what is left to overcome? He is calling us to overcome in the same manner as he did, how is that?
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
