My question deals with remarriage. I have been married four times. It is my understanding that while I was married to the other three husbands, I was in a state of adultery as my first husband was still living and we had divorced with no scriptural basis. Just being young and stupid mainly. My first husband died a few years ago and at his death I was not married. What I can't seem to get an answer on is this... When the first husband dies, it is like "batter up" and the next husband steps to the plate? Or were the subsequent marriages not even valid in God's eyes because I was still bound to my first husband all along? Would I be free to remarry now?
Please advise the best scriptural defense against the teaching of polygamy as being sound doctrine?
Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
I have a question about the rapture. I was ask by someone that if the rapture will take place and their are unsaved mothers who are pregnant and we believe that a child is saved if he does not reach yet the age of accountability. My question is "Is the child in the womb will be raptured?"
Can you tell me what is meant by 1 John 5:6 "water and blood"? What is water? What does "He came by water and blood" mean?
