Please advise the best scriptural defense against the teaching of polygamy as being sound doctrine?
Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
When an Old Testament saint died he went to paradise, or Abraham's bosom. He could not go to heaven because his sins had only been remitted, not redeemed. My question: What about Enoch and Elijah?
I have a question about the rapture. I was ask by someone that if the rapture will take place and their are unsaved mothers who are pregnant and we believe that a child is saved if he does not reach yet the age of accountability. My question is "Is the child in the womb will be raptured?"
We (Christians) have consistently been told that all children who die before they reach an age where they can understand about personal salvation (an age of accountability to God) that they go to heaven. I have prayerfully searched the scripture, all references, for anything regarding children, infants, family, brother, sisters, mothers, fathers, salvation, etc. Nothing could I find to support the argument, even though it does refer to passages where the whole family was saved (I believe in two places) and Christ Himself says to His disciples not to stop children coming to Him. Though nowhere can I find these ideas where accountability and instant infant/child salvation have any relationships, though salvation tied to the family maybe classed as having some scriptural basis.
