Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
Some people I know lost their eldest son at the age of seven through a farm accident, they believe he came to salvation many years ago but has backslid over the years. I struggle with trying to come at this tragedy from a biblical perspective. Other well meaning folks have said to them that it could be God's way of bringing them back (and to) fellowship with Him. They cannot accept this and is in fact driving them away. I guess it comes down to the oldest question of them all "why did God allow this to happen?" As a family (2 other younger children ) they are really suffering.
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
In Matthew 2:23 it says "And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene."
