In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
My understanding of the day of the Lord as referred to in the Bible with the end times starts after the rapture. These verses suggest that the Day of the Lord starts with different periods in respect to the rapture. Joel 3:31, 1 Thessalonians 5:1-5 and Isaiah 13:9. Can you please explain these verses to me as to when exactly the day of the Lord begins?
When did the Grace age begin? Will the Grace age last 2000 years? I am not trying to set a date for Christ' return, however it would seem to be after 2030AD.
The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV. What is the difference?
In Noah Webster's 1828 dictionary, there is no meaning of the word culture as it can be used at times today. The 1828 meaning basically defines it as any labor for improvement or growth. When did this word change its meaning? The reason I was thinking about this is because some people who call themselves Christian refer to the Bible's "culture" at the time. Someone has told me that in the culture at the time of the Bible women couldn't be a pastor. I have heard others refer to a "Southern" culture or a "Northern" culture. In these times when diversity and tolerance is stressed in and outside of the "church", this word is used (or misused) frequently. Another phrase used is "culturally relevant". It may be culturally relevant at one time but not another. Of course it is comforting to know that the Bible transcends all so-called "cultures"!
