In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
The Bible teaches that we should respect and honor our parents. If a father is an alcoholic and deserts his wife and children are those children still obligated to honor their father? Is a son or daughter then obligated to go to that father when he is dying?
My understanding of the day of the Lord as referred to in the Bible with the end times starts after the rapture. These verses suggest that the Day of the Lord starts with different periods in respect to the rapture. Joel 3:31, 1 Thessalonians 5:1-5 and Isaiah 13:9. Can you please explain these verses to me as to when exactly the day of the Lord begins?
When did the Grace age begin? Will the Grace age last 2000 years? I am not trying to set a date for Christ' return, however it would seem to be after 2030AD.
The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV. What is the difference?
