In Hebrews 9:26 Paul (or whoever may be writing) said that Christ had appeared "once "IN THE END OF THE WORLD" to atone for sins. How can it be the "end of the world" when it happened almost 2,000 years ago (considering that this world is only 6,000 plus years old)?
Could you help me refute the teaching of soul sleep?
Was Jesus born with a sin nature? If He is truly human and truly God, what is it about Him besides His body of flesh and blood that makes Him human? How can it be truly said of Him that He was tempted in every way that we are if He didn't inherit the sin nature from Mary? Why did Satan bother in the wilderness unless he knew that there was something in Jesus to which he could appeal? What makes it so remarkable that He didn't sin if He wasn't even born with the sin nature?
My understanding of the day of the Lord as referred to in the Bible with the end times starts after the rapture. These verses suggest that the Day of the Lord starts with different periods in respect to the rapture. Joel 3:31, 1 Thessalonians 5:1-5 and Isaiah 13:9. Can you please explain these verses to me as to when exactly the day of the Lord begins?
