What is the difference between sin and iniquity?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Why are the Angels described as being Michael's angels and not God's angels or Christ's angels? Is it possible that Michael could be part of the God head? Could Michael be Jesus Christ in 1 Thessalonions 4:16 of the Bible and John 5:25,28?
I recently heard a preacher (who believed in a post-trib rapture) say that since 1 Corinthians 15:52 says we are raptured at the "last trump, for the trumpet shall sound" and that the last trump doesn't sound until Revelation 11:15 and that there cannot be 2 last trumpets that the rapture must occur at the end of the great tribulation. I have tried to study this out for myself but I know I'm missing something and I would appreciate any insight you can give me on this.
Why does the bible refer Jesus the son of David?
