Describe how people were saved in the Old Testament after the law was given?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Romans 1:28 says, "And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;" My conclusion has been that God gave them over to a reprobate mind for the destruction of the flesh. What is your thought here?
Can you help me? I am looking for information relating to the Burnt offerings, described in Leviticus. I had read that when they were performed, they didn't remove all the sin, but allowed the individual to at least have communion with God. I read this in a commentary section in the Spirit Filled Life Bible,but cannot find it in the scripture that I read.
Could you shed some light on who Melchisedec was?
