What is the difference between sin and iniquity?
From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
Why does the bible refer Jesus the son of David?
I've been having a heated discussion with a fellow church member about the differences between James and Paul. How James was under a different dispensation than Paul, my friend can't buy that. I was wondering what scriptures I could show him that would back up my argument? I tried to explain how James was a legalist, that his teaching was faith plus works for salvation, and Paul's teaching is Faith. Can you help?
Please explain the phrase, "thou shalt be saved, and thy house".
