From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
When will those who are saved during the millennium get resurrected? There will be those entering the Kingdom in a physical body and therefore there will those being born in the Kingdom in a physical (who presumably will be required to be born again) and their body would need to be changed. When will the tribulation saints and the millennial saints be judged? Everyone talks about the Judgment seat of Christ for saved in this age and the Great white throne judgment for the lost. Leaving no judgment for the Tribulation and the Millennial saints. Some even go so far as to say that the church age saints alone will be at the Judgment seat of Christ now leaving no judgment for the Old Testament Saints either.
What is the main difference between "Prophecy" and "Prediction"?
I am trying to find scriptures on where God came from. Can you please direct me?
Was John the Baptist the first man "filled with the Holy Ghost" vs. having the "Spirit put upon him?" {Luke 1:15 even from his mother's womb}
In John 3, Jesus is discussing the new birth with Nicodemus, and is "amazed" (my quotes) at the fact that Nicodemus did not understand this- He says in verse 10,"you are Israel's teacher and you do not understand these things." Where in the Old Testament is the new birth described in such detail that Jesus could have assumed Nicodemus should know about it?
