Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
Is this considered a resurrection in Revelation 14:1-3, of the 144,000?
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
Why did Jesus tell Mary not to touch him since he had not ascended to his Father? When did he ascend? Did not he invite Thomas to thrust his hand in his side? I guess I'm looking for the chronological order. Also when did Jesus present the blood to the father? Was it the literal blood that came from his body on the cross?
