Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
For the first time recently I noticed in Revelation 22:1-2 that it says "And he shewed me a pure river of water of life, clear as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb. IN THE MIDST of the street of it, AND ON EITHER SIDE of the river, was there the tree of life, which bare twelve manner of fruits, and yielded her fruit every month: and the leaves of the tree were for the healing of the nations."
When Jesus is addressing the seven churches in Revelations, he repeats the statement, "to him that overcomes." In Revelation 3:21 Jesus even says, "... to him that overcomes, even as I also overcame..." My question is; If a person is saved by grace through faith, and the debt is paid in full by the blood of Christ, what is left to overcome? He is calling us to overcome in the same manner as he did, how is that?
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
