From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
How can a person be regenerated in the Old Testament if the spirit could leave him as he did Saul and Samson and almost David? (For if any man have not the spirit of Christ he is none of his)
Please explain what Jesus meant in John 14:19 when He said the world will see Him no more, but the eleven disciples would see Him again. I used to be a Jehovah Witness, but am not any more. Because of their teachings, this verse is confusing to me.
Why does the bible refer Jesus the son of David?
Please explain the phrase, "thou shalt be saved, and thy house".
