From a hermeneutical and grammatical exegesis of Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. It would be required to believe that works were necessary for salvation; and now they are not. Also, note the companion verse Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; If it is no more of works and now you get righteousness without the law, then isn't it clear that it used to be of works and used to be by the law?
How can a person be regenerated in the Old Testament if the spirit could leave him as he did Saul and Samson and almost David? (For if any man have not the spirit of Christ he is none of his)
Doesn't the Bible indicate that God has already chosen those He will save, we just do not know who they are, because we do not have the "foreknowledge" spoken about in the Bible?
Where in the Bible does it state that the ceremonial law was nailed to the cross?
I would like to have some insight on the subject once in grace
always in grace. Me and some of my buddies have been discussing it and I am not sure I understand it.
always in grace. Me and some of my buddies have been discussing it and I am not sure I understand it.
