Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
Can you tell me what is meant by 1 John 5:6 "water and blood"? What is water? What does "He came by water and blood" mean?
The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV. What is the difference?
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
I am doing a study on who controls the weather. I would appreciate any help on this topic.
