Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Is the USA in the Book of Revelation at all? If not does it mention our demise? Where is the USA in the end times?
Is it Biblical to have a woman deacon?
I would like to know where the custom of praying in church came from. As I try and find it in the Bible, it says that we are not to pray publicly, but we are to go to our closets and pray in private. Can you help me with this?
A friend of mine on the KJV Baptist group on Yahoo is working with a Jehovah Witness who is telling him that Jesus and Michael the Archangel are one and the same and that Michael is the only Archangel. He is looking for Biblical refutations of this patently absurd position! As the Lord leads and you have the time would you help us?
