Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Why is there such a recent surge in the popularity of movies and TV shows dealing with "messages from the dead?" Why is the practice of consulting with psychics, such as Sylvia Brown or John Edwards (who claim to talk to the dead and consult spirit guides) becoming spiritually acceptable to so many?
Who is Antichrist?
Can the Devil answer prayer?
Can you explain the woman being hid in Revelation 12 and Israel's part in the tribulation?
