Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
Why did Jesus tell Mary not to touch him since he had not ascended to his Father? When did he ascend? Did not he invite Thomas to thrust his hand in his side? I guess I'm looking for the chronological order. Also when did Jesus present the blood to the father? Was it the literal blood that came from his body on the cross?
Would you please explain the significance of Christ's words to his mother in John 2:1-5.
How does the practice of "Urim and Thummin" in the Old Testament differ from forbidden practices of divination?
How you know if a person is a real prophet?
