Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
If a Christian finds himself doubting his beliefs and maybe for a while stops believing, is there any way for him to be saved and forgiven? Is it possible for such a person to regain his salvation, or can a period of disbelief never be forgiven by God?
Are the old man and the flesh one and the same? We read the old man has been crucified with Christ, and that we are to mortify the flesh. I'm confused.
