Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
A man recently told me something interesting that got me to wondering. He said that the New Testament was translated from Aramaic, not only Greek. I had not heard of this. Do you know anything about the New Testament and it's connection with the Aramaic language?
When Jesus is addressing the seven churches in Revelations, he repeats the statement, "to him that overcomes." In Revelation 3:21 Jesus even says, "... to him that overcomes, even as I also overcame..." My question is; If a person is saved by grace through faith, and the debt is paid in full by the blood of Christ, what is left to overcome? He is calling us to overcome in the same manner as he did, how is that?
What does Revelation 3:16 mean?
