Regarding foreknowledge, I find it inconceivable and impossible to explain how, according to the traditional doctrine of God's foreknowledge, God can know from the beginning who will be saved and who will not be saved while at the same time both of the latter have a free will in choosing their destiny. I'm open to hearing someone else explain this but after 25 years of trying to come to a Biblical and logical answer, I find none. Perhaps you can help?
What is your method for finding definitions of biblical words? For example, the difference between "accursed" and "cursed" and the difference between "lucre" and "money". I have a Strong's concordance and also Webster's 1828. I don't think that going back to the original Hebrew and Greek is necessary. I know that the English of the KJV is correct; but, sometimes, isn't getting to the "root" of the word necessary?
Would you please explain the significance of Christ's words to his mother in John 2:1-5.
My question pertains to Genesis 3:22. Specifically, in whom is God referring to when he states Adam is one of us, who is us? Is this the triune God?
How does the practice of "Urim and Thummin" in the Old Testament differ from forbidden practices of divination?
