Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
When an Old Testament saint died he went to paradise, or Abraham's bosom. He could not go to heaven because his sins had only been remitted, not redeemed. My question: What about Enoch and Elijah?
The popular belief is that Enoch and Elijah were translated up to heaven where God abides. If this is true, how do we explain Christ's words in John 3:13?
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
What does it mean when the Bible says that an evil spirit was sent by God to torment Saul (reference 1 Samuel 16:14-15)?
