I believe the Bible teaches we are to abstain from wine. However, I have been challenged with Deuteronomy 14:26. This passage deals with those whose journeys are far from the temple. Therefore, they are to take money and purchase what the soul "lusteth" after (?) which includes wine. What is going on? I know other clear statements in the Bible cannot be set aside to "make way" for the idea there are instances people can drink. However, I don't have much of an answer.
The Gospels seem to contradict one another when they show Jesus' last words. I am attempting to show a person that the King James Bible doesn't contradict itself, yet I didn't really have a good explanation for this, other than each account gives some of Jesus' last words and perhaps not literally the last words.
In Acts 1:13, Judas is referred to as the brother of James in the KJV, yet in all of the newer versions, he is called the son of James. Do you know why all of the newer versions change this?
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
I have a question that I hope you can help me with. Last evening my 16 year old granddaughter spent the night with me. She brought a movie she wanted me to watch called Stigmata. I feel this is NOT from God. Do you have an opinion regarding Stigmata? Have you heard of it before?
