Were the italicized words in the original Hebrew and Greek, and if not are they inspired?
I was curious, since you have a rather strict stance on the King James Bible what you think of these verses in light of your views. I have emailed another Christian preacher who I also enjoy and he didn't really answer the question, so maybe you can.
The Gospels seem to contradict one another when they show Jesus' last words. I am attempting to show a person that the King James Bible doesn't contradict itself, yet I didn't really have a good explanation for this, other than each account gives some of Jesus' last words and perhaps not literally the last words.
In Acts 1:13, Judas is referred to as the brother of James in the KJV, yet in all of the newer versions, he is called the son of James. Do you know why all of the newer versions change this?
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
