I have a question regarding this and need some clarifications. I use the Scofield KJV (copyright 1967) and it has a correction to the original 1611 KJV. My Scofield says (the phrase is in italics in my Bible) "The KJV omits this italicized clause, which appears in all important Greek mss." Do you consider this to be an error in the 1611 edition or do you consider Scofield's position to be in error?
Were the italicized words in the original Hebrew and Greek, and if not are they inspired?
With so many religions and religious texts, how can we know the Bible is true, and that Christianity is the right way of living out the biblical text?
I was curious, since you have a rather strict stance on the King James Bible what you think of these verses in light of your views. I have emailed another Christian preacher who I also enjoy and he didn't really answer the question, so maybe you can.
The Gospels seem to contradict one another when they show Jesus' last words. I am attempting to show a person that the King James Bible doesn't contradict itself, yet I didn't really have a good explanation for this, other than each account gives some of Jesus' last words and perhaps not literally the last words.
The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV. What is the difference?
