How do we get the idea that the "sons of God" are fallen angels?
Are we sure that the modern translation of the Greek of the word "perfect", in Matthew 5:48 --as "complete" is fully correct or even correct at all?
What did Jesus mean when He said don't give children's food to dogs?
How can anyone be saved before the saving work of our LORD JESUS CHRIST? If even one person could be saved without his blood, then does that mean that the FATHER is evil, putting his son to useless suffering, for if HE can save one can HE not save them all the same way? The Bible says that if righteousness could be given by the law, then it would have been given, but it is not possible.
Can you please explain 1 John 5:16. This verse confuses me. I have heard several explanations, but they don't quite make sense. examples-do not pray for those unreceptive to the Gospel, but the wording of the last sentence implies that you don't have to, not don't. What do you think about it?
